Trying to understand the proof (or rather, verification) of the following criterion of formation in Bourbaki, Chapter 1 (p. 22 here):
CF7. Let $A$ be a relation (term), and let $x$ and $y$ be letters. Then $(y|x)A$ is a relation (term).
Let $A_1, A_2, \dots, A_n$ be a formative construction in which $A$ appears. We shall show step by step that, if $A_t$ is a relation (term) then so is $(y|x)A_t$.
Suppose that this point has been established for $A_1, A_2, \dots, A_{i-1}$; let us prove it for $A_i$. If $A_i$ is a letter, then $(y|x)A_i$ is a letter, etc.
They proceed similarly for the case where $A_i$ is the negation of a relation that preceeds it in the formal construction, and so on, so that every criterion to be a formula/term (here, that it must be part of a formative construction) is checked.
I realize it is reminiscent of induction, yet I do not quite understand why it is done that way. First of all, is $A_t$ supposed to correspond to $A$? Then why resort to $A_{i-1}$ instead of $A_{t-1}$? In fact, I am not quite understanding why they "assume that this point has been established for" the steps up to $i-1$.
Could anybody sort that out for me in simpler terms? (and no, I am not trying to learn Set Theory from Bourbaki, but mainly trying to see how sound the first Chapter is for other purposes). Thanks.
I realize that this just could be a different way of applying induction (that is, the inductive steps do not correspond with the formative sequence steps), I'm just not quite seeing it yet.
– itsqualtime Oct 13 '14 at 23:19