I know that the integral of 1/x diverges on (0,b). I know the same integral still diverges on (-b, b), despite the fact it seems it should be zero. My question then is, "Is it ALWAYS the case that if an integral diverges on a subinterval of an interval, it must then diverge on the larger interval?".
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1With the usual calculus textbook definitions, yes. However, check out Cauchy principal value on wikipedia. – Harald Hanche-Olsen Oct 13 '14 at 12:34