
I have this problem, I say that $x=z-y$, hence $F_z(z)=\iint\limits_D f(x,y)\ dx\ dy$, now I think that the limits for the $x$ integral would be from $0$ to $z-y$ and for $y$ would be from $0$ to $1$.
I am not sure if I can say that I need to analyze this when $0 <z <2$ and $-2 < z < 0$.