What I question is the limit function $\lim$ which we use to find to limit of a function when its parameter comes very close to some value. Also, according to the definition of limit that is for any arbitrary number $\epsilon >0$, there exist a number $\delta$ such that for $0 <|x-a|<\delta$ then $0<|f(x)-f(a)|<\epsilon$.
So to prove the limit of $f(x)$ as $x \to a$ is $L$, I must prove that there exist a number $\delta$ such that for $0 <|x-a|<\delta$ then $0<|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$.
What I don't know is why we must still use that way to prove the method. Isn't the $\lim$ function always right with its rule because we use it to find the limit?
For example, the limit of $f(x) = x-3$ as $x$ approach $3$ will be zero. We can use the $\lim$ function to solve it.
So what is the point to prove it by using the $\epsilon, \delta$ if using the $\lim$ function will get us the right result?
I mean, if using $\lim$ function can get wrong result then people should not use it. We use it because if we follow all its rules the result we get is always right, so why must we prove the limit of $f(x) = x-3$ as $x$ approach $3$ will be zero again by proving that there exist a number $\delta$ such that for $0 <|x-3|<\delta$ then $0<|f(x)-0|<\epsilon$?
Why isn't going straight to the result using $\lim$ enough, but still having to use $\delta, \epsilon$ to prove it again?