As already noted in the comments, if $f$ is convex and increasing and $g$ is convex, then $f \circ g$ is convex. If both $f$ and $g$ are $\mathcal{C}^2$, you can easily show this via derivatives:
$$
{(f \circ g)}'' = {((f' \circ g)g')}' = (f'' \circ g) {(g')}^2 + f'(g) g'' \geq 0
$$
if $f'', f', g'' \geq 0$. The proof can be given also for functions which are just continuous.
However the converse is not true at all, so from the convexity of $f \circ g$ you cannot deduce anything on the convexity of $g$. For instance, take $f(x) = x^3$ and $g(x) = \sqrt{x}$ as functions of $\mathbb{R}^+$. $g$ is not convex, but $f$ is convex and increasing and $f \circ g(x) = x^{\frac{3}{2}}$ is strictly convex. This test can help you only if $f$ is linear: then convexity is preserved in both directions (or, if $f$ is decreasing, is swapped with concavity).
Moreover, in general there is no hope that the product $fg$ is convex if $f$ and $g$ are convex. Take for example $f(x) = x^2$ and $g(x) = {(x-1)}^2$. You need additional conditions, for example it is sufficient that $f$ and $g$ are both positive and the derivatives $f'$ and $g'$ have pointwise the same sign. Again, it is useful to think to the differentiable case and noting the identity
$$
{(fg)}'' = f''g + g''f + 2f'g'.
$$