I am only releasing part of the proof.
Doesn't this prove that "otherwise" case is completely wrong? I am assuming "otherwise" refers to $n < 2$? Because he just showed that $H^0(\Bbb R - \{ p \}) \simeq \Bbb R^2 $, not isomorphic to $0$. I should mention this exercpt is is setup for the base case of the eventual induction on $k$. The proof becomes long, so I didn't post it here, nor it is relevant.

