From numerical evidence it appears that whenever the integral converges, $$J_a :=\int_0^1 dx \frac{1+x^a}{(1+x)^{a+2}} = \frac{1}{a+1}.$$ For $a \in \mathbb{N}$, I was able to prove this using induction (see below). How can we prove it for non-integer $a$?
Integrating by parts, $$\begin{align} J_n &= \left.-\frac{1}{n+1} \frac{1+x^n}{(1+x)^{n+1}}\right\lvert_0^1+ \frac{n}{n+1} \int_0^1 dx \frac{x^{n-1}}{(1+x)^{n+1}} \\&=\frac{1}{n+1}\left(1-2^{-n} \right) + \frac{n}{n+1} \int_0^1 dx \left[ \frac{1+x^{n-1}}{(1+x)^{n+1}} - \frac{1}{(1+x)^{n+1}} \right] \\&=\frac{n}{n+1}J_{n-1} + \frac{1}{n+1} \left[\left(1-2^{-n} \right) -\int_0^1 dx \frac{n}{(1+x)^{n+1}} \right] \\&=\frac{n}{n+1}J_{n-1}. \end{align}. $$ Because $J_0 = 1$, we therefore have $$J_n = \frac{1}{n+1} \mathrm{for\,} n \in \mathbb{N}.$$