I have an assignment where I have to prove the validity of a statement, but I am not sure about what I am doing.
This is the assignment:
Is the statement $(A \wedge B \wedge C) \to D$ a valid argument? Justify your answer with a mathematical proof. Hint 1: a statement is valid if and only if its negation is a contraddiction. Hint 2: try to simplify the body of the implication (i.e., the part $A \wedge B \wedge C$) before simplifying the entire formula. Hint 3: a quantified formula is a contraddiction if and only if it is not possible to find a universe satisfying it.
I have done it like this:
I know that
$A \land B \land C \rightarrow D$
is equivalent to
$\neg(A \land B \land C) \lor D $
which is equivalent to
$\neg(A \land B \land C \land \neg D)$
Now if I replace $A \land B \land C$ with P with obtain:
$\neg (P \land \neg D)$
Know I state that:
$\forall x (x \in (A \land B \land C \rightarrow D))$
Then I negate it and see if it's a contradiction of the expression above:
$\neg(\forall x (x \in (A \land B \land C \rightarrow D)))$
Is the same thing as saying exists at least 1 that does not respect the statement:
$\exists x \neg(x \in (A \land B \land C \rightarrow D))$
And I replace $A \land B \land C$ with P with obtain:
$\exists x \neg(x \in (P \rightarrow D))$
$\exists x \neg(x \in (\neg P \lor D))$
$\exists x \neg(x \in \neg (P \land \neg D))$
Which is a contradiction of the above statement, right?