I'm studying a proof I learned in class and I don't quite understand this statement.
Let $X$ be a metric space and $C \subset Z$ a nonempty closed set. For each $x \in X$ define $f_{c}(x)=$ inf $\{ d (x,y)\mid y \in C\}$ (this is the distance from $x$ to $C$).
We want to prove that $f_{c}(x)=0$ if and only if $x\in C$.
So first let $f_{c}(x)=0$. The proof goes one to say that this fact implies that for all $n \geq 1$ there exists $z_n \in C$ such that $d(x,z_n)< \frac{1}{n}$ by the definition of inf.
I'm just a little confused on how the definition on inf gives us this implication.
I understand that $f_c(x)=0$ means that the distance from $x$ to $C$ is 0. So the inf (or least upper bound) of the distance from a point in $X$ and a point in $C$ is 0.
But I don't understand why that implies there is some sequence in $C$ where the distance from the point in $X$ and the sequence is less than $\frac{1}{n}$. Why does the definition of inf imply this?