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Can the semigroup $(\mathbb R^+ ,+)$ be partitioned into two semigroups?

I have been trying but haven't found anything, please help.

Souvik Dey
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  • all the finite $\cup $ $+ \infty$ – Bhaskar Vashishth Oct 28 '14 at 04:31
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    @BhaskarVashishth: Sorry but I don't regard $\infty$ an element of $\mathbb R^+$ , it is an element of extended reals – Souvik Dey Oct 28 '14 at 13:30
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    Are you asking if you can partition $\Bbb R^+$ into two sets which are closed under addition? I'm fairly sure that I posted at least one such answer. And here it is! – Asaf Karagila Nov 02 '14 at 08:56
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    We have all these non-constructive answers. When you finish with those, show that it cannot be done where the two subgroups are Lebesgue measurable sets. – GEdgar Nov 02 '14 at 23:35
  • I will point out that the solution can be also found in Komjath, Totik: Problems and Theorems in Classical Set Theory, p.310. The solution uses Zorn Lemma and is similar to Yiorgos S. Smyrlis' answer. Minor difference is that they work with pairs of sets closed under addition and multiplication by positive rationals. This simplifies the reasoning that the maximal element has the required properties a bit. (And it is easy to see that a set with required properties must be closed under $\mathbb Q^+$-multiples.) – Martin Sleziak Jan 13 '15 at 08:12

4 Answers4

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The Solution: Notice that $\mathbb{R}$ is a vector space over $\mathbb{Q}$. Choose some linear function $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{Q}$ over this vector space for which there exist an $x,y\in\mathbb{R}^+$ such that $f(x)\geq 0$ and $f(y)<0$. Then, the sets $A=\{x:f(x)\geq 0\}$ and $B=\{x:f(x)<0\}$ for $x\in\mathbb{R}^+$ partition the space and are semigroups.

Some notes on it: The existence of such an $f$ is guaranteed by the axiom of choice, which is equivalent to the statement that all vector spaces have a basis. Once we have a basis $S$, we can change to the basis $S'=\{|s|:s\in S\}$ and define $f$ on $S'$ such that it takes a negative value for at least one $s\in S'$ and takes a non-negative value for some other $s\in S'$.

A more general statement we could make is that we could partition $\mathbb{R}^+$ into as many subsemigroups as we want by choosing more linear functions - for instance, if we had a $f$ and $g$ so that none of the following were empty, we could partition into three sets as: $$\{x:f(x)\geq 0\}$$ $$\{x:f(x)< 0\wedge g(x)\geq 0\}$$ $$\{x:f(x)< 0\wedge g(x) < 0\}$$ (We could also partition into the sets for which a single $f$ is positive, negative, or zero, but this doesn't generalize well)

Another note is that $f$ could be $\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ not $\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{Q}$ - I used the latter to emphasize that I want $f$ to be linear in the rationals - that $f(kx)=kf(x)$ is only necessary when $k$ is rational.

Milo Brandt
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  • You can make a $\mathbb Q$-basis of $\mathbb R$ starting from ${1,\sqrt 2}$. Then define $f(1)=7$ and $f(\sqrt 2)=-100$. – user26857 Nov 02 '14 at 09:19
  • Very nice proof. When I saw the claim, I thought that Hamel basis might be useful to show this. But I was not able to come up with this elegant idea. – Martin Sleziak Jan 17 '15 at 18:34
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The answer is YES.

We shall follow the idea which appeared here, and I will explain the final step in detail.

Let $$\mathscr F=\{(S,T)\,:\,S,T\subset \mathbb R^+,\,S\cap T=\varnothing\,\,\& \,\,S,T\,\,\text{semigroups}\}.$$ Then $\mathscr F\ne\varnothing$, as $\,\big(\mathbb Q^+,\sqrt{2}\,\mathbb Q^+\big)\in\mathscr F$, and if we define "$\preceq$" in $\mathscr F$ as $$ (S_1,T_1)\,\preceq\,(S_2,T_2), $$ if and only if $S_1\subset S_2$ and $T_1\subset T_2$, then clearly "$\preceq$" is a partial ordering.

We shall use Zorn's Lemma to obtain a maximal element $(S_{\mathrm{max}},T_{\mathrm{max}})\in\mathscr F$, i.e., an element not possessing a strictly larger, in the $\preceq$-sense, and show that $S_{\mathrm{max}} \cup T_{\mathrm{max}}=\mathbb R^+$.

In order to apply Zorn's Lemma and extract this maximal element, we need to establish that every chain has an upper bound. A chain $\mathscr C$ is a non-empty subset of $\mathscr F$, which is totally ordered by $\preceq$, i.e., if $(S_1,T_1),\,(S_2,T_2)\in\mathscr C$, then either $(S_1,T_1)\,\preceq\,(S_2,T_2)$ or $(S_2,T_2)\,\preceq\,(S_1,T_1)$. Upper bound of $\mathscr C$ is an element $(S,T)\in\mathscr F$, larger than all the elements of $\mathscr C$, i.e., $(S',T')\preceq (S,T)$, for all $\,(S',T')\in \mathscr C$. If we set $$ \hat S=\bigcup\{S: (S,T)\in \mathscr C,\,\,\text{for some semigroup}\,\,T\subset\mathbb R^+ \}, \\ \hat T=\bigcup\{T: (S,T)\in \mathscr C,\,\,\text{for some semigroup}\,\,S\subset\mathbb R^+ \}, $$ we shall show that $(\hat S,\hat T)\in\mathscr F$. Indeed, if $x,y\in \hat S$, then $x\in S_1$ and $y\in S_2$, for some $(S_1,T_1),(S_2,T_2)\in\mathscr C$. But as $\mathscr C$ is a chain, then either $S_1\subset S_2$ or $S_2\subset S_1$. Say the first happens, then $x,y\in S_2$, and as $S_2$ is a semigroup, then $x+y\in S_2\subset \hat S$. Similarly, if $S_2\subset S_1$, and similarly $\hat T$ is a semigroup. Also, $\hat S\cap\hat T=\varnothing$, for if $x\in \hat S\cap\hat T$, then $x\in S_1$, for some $(S_1,T_1)\in\mathscr C$ and $x\in T_2$, for some $(S_2,T_2)\in\mathscr C$, and as $\mathscr C$ is a chain, assuming for example that $(S_1,T_1)\preceq(S_2,T_2)$, we obtain that $x\in S_2\cap T_2$, which is a contradiction, as $S_2,T_2$ are assumed disjoint. Also, $(\hat S,\hat T)$ is an upper bound of $\mathscr C$, as by its definition $S\subset \hat S$ and $T\subset\hat T$, for all $(S,T)\in\mathscr C$.

Hence, every chain in $\mathscr C$ has an upper bound and thus Zorn's Lemma is applicable, which means that $\mathscr F$ possesses a maximal element $(S_{\mathrm{max}},T_{\mathrm{max}})$. As $S_{\mathrm{max}},T_{\mathrm{max}}\subset\mathbb R^+$ are two disjoint semigroups, it only remains to show that $S_{\mathrm{max}} \cup T_{\mathrm{max}}=\mathbb R^+$.

Suppose not, and that $z\in \mathbb R^+\smallsetminus(S_{\mathrm{max}} \cup T_{\mathrm{max}})$ and let $S'$ be the semigroup generated by $\hat S\cup\{z\}$ and $T'$ the semigroup generated by $\hat T\cup\{z\}$. We shall obtain a contradiction by showing that either $(S',\hat T)\in\mathscr F$ or $(\hat S,T')\in\mathscr F$, each of which is strictly larger (with respect to $\preceq$) than the maximal element $(\hat S,\hat T)$.

The elements of $S'$ are of the form $x+nz$, where $x\in \hat S$ and $n\in\mathbb N$, and similarly the elements of $T'$ are of the form $y+mz$, where $y\in \hat T$and $m\in\mathbb N$. If $S'\cap \hat T\ne\varnothing$, then $$ x+nz=y, \quad\text{for some $x\in\hat S,\,y\in\hat T,\,n\in\mathbb N$}, \tag{1} $$ and if $\hat S\cap T'\ne\varnothing$, then $$ x'=y'+n'z, \quad\text{for some $x'\in\hat S,\,y'\in\hat T,\,n'\in\mathbb N$}. \tag{2} $$ Now $(1)$ and $(2)$ imply that $$ nn'z=n'y-n'x=nx'-ny', $$ and hence $nx'+n'x=ny'+n'y\in \hat S\cap \hat T$, which is not possible. Thus, either $S'\cap \hat T=\varnothing$ or $\hat S\cap T'=\varnothing$, which implies that $(\hat S,T')\in\mathscr F$ or $(S',\hat T)\in \mathscr F$, which contradicts the fact that $(\hat S,\hat T)$ is maximal.

Thus $\hat S\cup\hat T=\mathbb R^+$ and we are done.

Note. Although I find Meelo's answer extremely elegant, I believe that this answer has certain advantages:

a. Using the same argument we can partition $\mathbb R^+$ in $k$ semigroups, for every $k\in\mathbb N$.

b. This method works for other commutative groups, $G$, possessing a subset $T$, which is a semigroup and $G=T\cup\{0\}\cup (-T)$.

3

Let $H=\{h_i:i\in I\}$ be a Hamel basis for $\mathbb R$ over $\mathbb Q$, where the index set $I$ is well-ordered. Thus each real number $x$ has a unique expression as a finite linear combination of elements of $H$ with rational coefficients, i.e., $x=\sum_{i\in I}x_ih_i$ where $x_i\in\mathbb Q$ and $\{i\in I:x_i\ne0\}$ is finite. If $x\ne0$, define $f(x)$ to be the first nonzero coefficient in this expression, i.e., $f(x)=x_i\ne0$, and $x_j=0$ for all $j\lt i$.

Let$$A=\{x\in\mathbb R^+:f(x)\gt0\}$$and let$$B=\{x\in\mathbb R^+:f(x)\lt0\}.$$

It is easy to see that $A$ and $B$ are disjoint nonempty sets whose union is $\mathbb R^+$, and that each is closed under addition.

bof
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The answer is yes. Below is a proof that there are sub-semigroups $\overline{S},\overline{T}$ of $(\mathbb{R},+)$ such that $\overline{S}\cap \overline{T}=\{0\}$ and $\overline{S}\cup \overline{T}=\mathbb{R}$.

Assume that semigroups $S_1,T_1\subset\mathbb{R}$

(1) are closed under multiplying by non-negative rationals (that is, $S=S\mathbb{Q}_+$ and $T=T\mathbb{Q}_+$);

(2) satisfy $S\cap T=\{0\}$, $S-T\subset S$, and $T-S\subset T$.

If $\alpha\notin S_1\cup T_1$, then semigroups $S'=S+\alpha\mathbb{Q}_+$ and $T'=T-\alpha\mathbb{Q}_+$ satisfy (1) and (2) and contain $\alpha$ in their union. A standard application of Zorn's lemma completes the proof.

user2097
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  • @user26857 Note that $S\cap\mathbb{R}_+$ is a semigroup as well. – user2097 Nov 02 '14 at 23:22
  • Right! But maybe you should have written this explicitly. (Btw, you also have to avoid as their intersection be ${0}$ in order to find a partition.) – user26857 Nov 02 '14 at 23:25
  • @user26857 I don't know, maybe the OP means that $\mathbb{R}^+$ is the set of positive reals. Anyway, we do not need to care about zero, because if $S$ is a sub-semigroup of $\mathbb{R}+$ then $S\setminus{0}$ is a sub-semigroup of $\mathbb{R}{>0}$ and vice versa. – user2097 Nov 03 '14 at 00:13