Then such function doesn't exist. You can find a proof below. You can also argue it by using the fact $f$ is Riemann integrable $\iff$ it's bounded and continuous almost everywhere.
– JohnOct 29 '14 at 11:32
If you choose your domain of integration be a measure zero set, then any Lebesgue integrable (in particular Riemann integrable) function has zero integral.
If you consider Riemann integrable function on $[a,b]$ with $a<b$, then it's not possible, see a proof here.