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I have a question that I've been thinking about for a while. So If $(E,\pi_E)$ and $(B,\pi_B)$ are some vector bundles over some mainfold $M$. What is the exact relationship between $$\Gamma (E)\otimes \Gamma (B) $$ and $$\Gamma(E\otimes B) $$

Are they the same spaces, or if not, are they at least isomorphic to one another?

MonkSphere
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The natural map goes this way $\Gamma(E) \otimes \Gamma(F) \to \Gamma(E\otimes F)$.

Injectiveness is not a problem.

Surjectiveness is. Think of compact connected complex manifold, $E$ a bundle with a $0$ space of global sections, while $E\otimes F$ has lots of global sections.

However in the smooth or topological category things are OK because it is true for trivial bundles and it is true for a direct sum if and only if it is true for summands. Moreover, every bundle is a direct summand of a trivial one, like @anomaly: indicated. In fact, bundles are equivalent to finitely generated projective module over the ring of functions on the manifold (Swan's theorem) and things work fine for tensor products.

orangeskid
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  • So that's why in Jost's book, he's able to say that $$\Omega^2(E) \otimes (\Omega^0(E))^* = \Omega^2(End(E)) $$ – MonkSphere Feb 11 '15 at 20:53
  • @MonkSphere: Yes, I think so. Locally it is correct. But one cannot globalize. I imagine you can stick this into an exact sequence - the specialists can tell. The smooth or topological category is very supple. Or, work over an affine ( Stein) base space, then things are OK again. – orangeskid Feb 11 '15 at 21:03
  • @orangeskid The isomorphism you describe for trivial bundles is not canonical thought, correct? It involves choosing frames for both bundles? – user2520938 Apr 29 '16 at 11:45