I need to understand a passage from a paper which I don't quite understand.
Let $M$ be a module over the ring $\mathbb C\{t\}$ of convergent power series. We want to show that $M$ is torsion-free, i.e., if $\psi(t)\cdot m = 0$ for some non-zero $\psi \in \mathbb C\{t\}$ then $m = 0$.
What the author is actually showing, if I understand correctly, is that $t\cdot m = 0$ implies $m = 0$, for every $m$. This is of course necessary, but is it sufficient?
So the question is:
Let $M$ be a $\mathbb C\{t\}$-module. Suppose $t\cdot m = 0$ implies $m=0$. Is then $M$ torsion-free?