If you know some theory of analytic functions, you know that a power series
$$
\sum_{n\ge0}a_nx^n
$$
with coefficients in $\mathbb{C}$ which converges in a neighborhood of zero converges in an open circle (which might be the entire plane); on the boundary of the circle convergence is not guaranteed. Let's call $r$ the maximal open circle where the series converges and let's set
$$
f(x)=\sum_{n\ge0}a_nx^n
$$
for $x$ in the (interior of) this circle. Then $f$ is an analytic function.
The series converges (uniformly) in every closed circle of radius $s$ with $0<s<r$. Since this set is compact, the function $f$ has only a finite number of zeros in it, because an analytic function whose set of zeros has an accumulation point is identically zero. Therefore we can choose $s>0$ such that the only possible zero of $f$ in the open circle with radius $s$ is at $0$. This happens, of course, if and only if $a_0=0$.
If $a_0\ne0$, then $g(x)=1/f(x)$ is an analytic function in the circle with radius $f$, because it has a (complex) derivative at each point. On the other hand, if $a_0=0$, the function $f$ can't have a multiplicative inverse in any neighborhood of $0$. Note that an analytic function in a circle around $0$ is the sum of its Taylor development at $0$, so $g$ is the sum of a power series.
Thus the non invertible power series are those with $a_0=0$ and this is clearly an ideal.
For $\mathbb{R}\{x\}$ there's nothing to prove, because a power series with coefficients in $\mathbb{R}$ (converging in some neighborhood of $0$) defines a complex analytic function in a circle and the same reasoning applies: the multiplicative inverse in $\mathbb{C}\{x\}$ is still $1/f(x)$, which assumes real values for real $x$; so the coefficients of its Taylor series at $0$ are real.