Cauchy's functional equation is given as
$$f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$$
Wikipedia states that the solution to this functional equation with $x\in\mathbb Q$ is $f(x)=cx$, where $c$ is an "arbitrary rational" number. Without adding more constraints, one cannot solve for $x\notin\mathbb Q$.
I don't understand why we would have $c\in\mathbb Q$, as from my proof:
For $x\in\mathbb N$:
$$f(x)=f\left(\sum_{k=1}^x1\right)=\sum_{k=1}^xf(1)=xf(1)\tag{By Induction}$$
One can further extend this to $x\in\mathbb Z$ and lastly $\mathbb Q$.
So the problem becomes down to $f(x)=xf(1)$, and since we can have $f(1)$ to be any value we want, $f(x)=cx$ for arbitrary $c$ and rational $x$. But why is it that $f(1)$ be rational? Why not have $c\in\mathbb C$?
And I also want to be sure that we can't solve for $x\notin\mathbb Q$ because the induction step doesn't work over $\mathbb R$. For example, one may say $f(\pi)=100$, and so $f(\pi+x)=100+cx$ for $x\in\mathbb{Q}$, right? One may be able to argue $f(0)=f(\pi)+f(-\pi)$, so I'll say "Yes, $f(-\pi)=-100$, which appears to contradict $f(\pi+x)$, but it doesn't because $x$ must be rational?"