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Let $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a function satisfying $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$ for any $x, y$ in $\mathbb{R}$.

Suppose $f(x)$ is continuous at 0, and $f(1)$ equals a constant $a$. Show that $f(x) = ax$

The hint provided for this question is to first show that $f(r) = ar$ for $r$ in $\mathbb{Q}$. So I want to express $f(1)$ in terms of $p$ and $q$ and $f(r) = f(p/q)$, where $q$ is in $\mathbb{N}$ and $p$ is in $\mathbb{Z}$. To this end, I want to show that $f(1) = qf(1/q)$ by mathematical induction. I am stuck at the step after the inductive hypothesis.

  1. For $q=1$, we have $1f(1/1) = f(1)$, so $f(1) = qf(1/q)$ holds.
  2. Inductive hypothesis: Assume $kf(1/k) = f(1)$ holds for $q = k$ in $\mathbb{N}$.
  3. For $q=k+1$, we have $(k+1)f(1/(k+1))$.

I am stuck at 3. I think I have to express $(k+1)f(1/(k+1))$ in terms of $k$ and $f(1/k)$ in order to complete the proof for this step, and I am unable to show something like that. I feel like I am missing something simple here.

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