$\newcommand{\lmt}{\left[\begin{matrix}}$ $\newcommand{\rmt}{\end{matrix}\right]}$
Hi,
I was reading through a proof of the number of domino tilings of a $(2n)\times(2n)$ chessboard, and somewhere in the proof was the following unjustified claim:
Let $A=\lmt 0&1&0&\cdots&0\\ -1&0&1&\ddots&\vdots\\ 0&-1&0&\ddots&0\\ \vdots&\ddots&\ddots&\ddots&1\\ 0&\cdots&0&-1&0 \rmt$ and $B=\lmt 0&1&0&\cdots&0\\ 1&0&1&\ddots&\vdots\\ 0&1&0&\ddots&0\\ \vdots&\ddots&\ddots&\ddots&1\\ 0&\cdots&0&1&0 \rmt$. In case my notation isn't clear, they have $\pm1$ on the superdiagonal and subdiagonal and $0$ everywhere else.
Let $C$ be the matrix with blocks $\lmt -A&I&0&\cdots&0\\ I&-A&I&\ddots&\vdots\\ 0&I&-A&\ddots&0\\ \vdots&\ddots&\ddots&\ddots&I\\ 0&\cdots&0&I&-A \rmt$.
Let $p_B$ be the characteristic polynomial of $B$. Then, the claim is that
$$ \det C = \det p_B(A). $$
This was stated without proof, so I'm wondering if this follows from a well-known theorem, or if there's a slick proof of it.
Also, I'm curious to what extent this claim generalizes. Thanks!