Looking at this question, I am thinking to consider the map $R\to M_n(R)$ where $R$ is a ring, sending $r\in R$ to $rI_n\in M_n(R).$ Then this induces a map. $$f:M_n(R)\rightarrow M_n(M_n(R))$$ Then we consider another map $g:M_n(M_n(R))\rightarrow M_{n^2}(R)$ sending, e.g. $$\begin{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&1\end{pmatrix}&\begin{pmatrix}2&1\\3&0\end{pmatrix}\\ \begin{pmatrix} 0&0\\0&0 \end{pmatrix}&\begin{pmatrix} 2&3\\5&2\end{pmatrix} \end{pmatrix}$$ to $$\begin{pmatrix}1&0&2&1\\ 0&1&3&0\\ 0&0&2&3\\ 0&0&5&2\end{pmatrix}.$$
Is it true that $$\det_{M_n(R)}(\det_{M_n(M_n(R))}A)=\det_{M_{n^2}(R)}g(A)$$ for some properly-defined determinant on $M_n(M_n(R))?$
If this is true, then $\det_{M_n(R)}\operatorname{ch}_{A}(B)=\det_{M_n(R)}\circ\det_{M_n(M_n(R))}(f(A)-B\cdot I_{M_n(M_n(R))})=\det_{M_{n^2}}\circ g(f(A)-B\cdot I_{M_{n^2}(R)}),$ which is what OP of the linked question wants to prove.
Any hint or reference is greatly appreciated, thanks in advance.
P.S. @user1551 pointed out that determinant is defined on commutative rings only and $M_n(R)$ is in general a non-commutative ring. So I am thinking maybe we could use the Dieudonné determinant. In any case, I changed the question accordingly.