I have consulted some answers on SE already, such as these two:
If $A^m=I$ then A is Diagonalizable
Show that if $A^{n}=I$ then $A$ is diagonalizable.
However, I am still confused. I understand that if we can show that $p_A (\lambda) = \lambda^n - 1$, then setting it to zero, we will have $(\lambda - 1)(\lambda^{n-1} + \cdots)=0$, so we have $n$ distinct roots. (or even simpler, root of unity, so it follows)
But how do we get $p_A (\lambda) = \lambda^n - 1$ in the first place? Cayley-Hamilton says that $A$ should satisfy its own characteristic polynomial. But in this case we don't have the characteristic polynomial to begin with?