Suppose $A$ is an $m \times m$ matrix which satisfies $A^{n}=1$ for some $n$, then why is $A$ necessarily diagonalizable.
Not sure if this is helpful, but here's my thinking so far: We know that $A$ satisfies $p(x)=x^{n}-1=(x-1)(x^{n-1}+\ldots+x+1)$. If $A=I$ it is clearly diagonalizable so we may assume that $A$ is a root of the other factor.
Edit: Actually, I'm a bit confused and not even sure if we can say that much. Since the ring of $m \times m$ matrices is not an integral domain, we can not conclude that if $A-I \not = 0$ then $(A^{n-1}+\ldots+A+I)=0$, correct?