A slightly different approach is to notice that $f(z)=\frac{1-z}{1+z}$ is an involutive map:
$$\forall z\in\mathbb{C}\setminus\{-1\},\quad f(f(z))=z $$
hence $f(z)$ gives a bijection between the punctured plane and itself. It is simple to notice that $f$ maps the imaginary axis into the unit circle minus the point $-1$ in a bijective way, hence the inverse image of the unit circle minus the point $-1$ is the imaginary axis.
The second equation is equivalent to
$$ \left(\frac{1-z}{1+z}\right)^{5} = \exp\left(-\frac{\pi i}{3}\right) $$
and every solution lies on the imaginary axis by the previous lemma. A solution, for instance, is given by $z=\frac{1-\exp(-\pi i/15)}{1+\exp(-\pi i/15)}=i\tan\frac{\pi}{30}$.