I am sometimes surprised by how adept people are at manipulating inequalities involving absolute values of complex numbers.
I know that by representing z in rectangular coordinates, it is relatively straightforward to show that $\mid \frac{1}{z} -1 \mid = \frac{1}{2}$ is the circle $\mid z- \frac{4}{3} \mid = \frac{2}{3}$ (using basic properties of the transformation $w= \frac{1}{z}$ also works I believe). What I don't have a good intuition for is whether or not the former expression can be algebraically manipulated into the latter expression by staying in the variable z (i.e., not switching to rectangular or polar coordinates). After playing around with this for a little, my guess is that this is not possible. What I am wondering is: are there any general rules that I could apply at the beginning to tell me whether or not such a manipulation is possible.