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I'm trying to figure out if the following is true or not in any topological space involving limit points. Do there exist sets $A$ and $B$ such that $A'-B'\subseteq (A-B)'$? So far I can't find any counterexamples to show its false, nor a proof that it is valid either and I've spent days trying. Help please!

Craig
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Suppose $x \in A'\setminus B'$. So $x \in A"$ and $x \notin B'$ and the latter means by definition that there is some open neighbourhood $O_x$ of $x$, such that $O_x \cap B \subseteq \{x\}$.

Now let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$. Then $U = O \cap O_x$ is also an open neighbourhood of $x$, and so we have some point $a \in A \cap U$, with $a \neq x$. As $U \cap B \subseteq O_x \cap B =\{x\}$ we see that $a \notin B$ (if $a \in B$ the previous inclusions would force it to be equal to $x$), and so $a \in A \setminus B$. So every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains some point $a \in A\setminus B$ with $a \neq x$. This means that $x \in (A\setminus B)'$.

Hence $A'\setminus B' \subseteq (A\setminus B)'$ for all $A,B \subseteq X$.

Henno Brandsma
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Let $x\in A'-B'$. Then $x\in A'$, so $x\in \overline{A-\{x\}}$ and $x\notin \overline{B-\{x\}}$, as Wiliam Elliot says. Thus $x\in \overline{A-\{x\}}-\overline{B-\{x\}}$. However, $\bar A-\bar B\subseteq \overline{A-B}$ (see this for a proof) so $x\in \overline{(A-\{x\})-(B-\{x\})}=\overline{(A-B)-\{x\}}$. Hence, $x\in (A-B)'$.

K.Power
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  • I'd also like to apologize for my initial post, it was 3 in the morning my time, and for some reason my brain convinced me that we were talking about boundary points, even though I mentioned limit points in it :/. Sorry for the confusion – K.Power Jul 11 '17 at 08:16