Let $A,B$ be subsets of a topological space $X$. Is it true that $\overline{A}-\overline{B}\subseteq\overline{A-B}$?
Suppose $x\in\overline{A}-\overline{B}$. So all open sets containing $X$ also contains an element of $A$. And there exists an open set $U$ containing $X$ that contains no element of $B$. So $U$ contains an element of $A-B$. But this is not enough to conclude that $x\in\overline{A-B}$. So I'm thinking the answer might be negative, but cannot find a counterexample.
Let $A = (0,2)$, $B = (1,3)$, $x = 1.5$. Now we must choose an open set $U$ that contains $x$ such that it does not intersect $A-B$, let us choose the set $(1.2,1.7)\cup(4,5)$. Now we have an open set that contains $x$, does not intersect $A-B$, does intersect $A$, and is not a subset of $B$.
– Benji Altman Jun 18 '17 at 15:19