I have a question in Baby Rudin Theorem 1.20 (b).
I have checked other Q and A's of this theorem in mathstackexchange (and I can understand this theorem).
But, those answers did not explain statements in Baby Rudin (such as Baby Rudin Theorem 1.20 (b) Proof).
That theorem states that "If $x\in\mathbb{R}$, $y\in\mathbb{R}$, and$x<y$, then there exists a $p\in\mathbb{Q}$ such that $x<p<y$".
The proof of this theorem is below.
Since $x<y$, we have $y-x>0$, and Archimedian property furnishes a positive integer $n$ such that
$n(y-x)>1$.
Apply Archimedian property again, to obtain positive integers $m_1$ and $m_2$ such that $m_1>nx$, $m_2>-nx$. Then
$-m_2<nx<m_1$.
Hence there is an integer m(with $-m_2\leq m\leq m_1$) such that
$m-1\leq nx<m$.
If we conbine these inequalities, we obtain
$nx<m\leq 1+nx<ny$.
Since n>0, it follows that
$x<\frac{m}{n}<y$.
This proves this theorem, with $p=m/n$.
I want to know how Rudin gets a consequence that "Hence there is an integer m(with $-m_2\leq m\leq m_1$) such that $m-1\leq nx<m$".