I have a question about Rudin's proof of Theorem 1.20 (b) in his book Principles of Mathematical Analysis. Theorem 1.20 is stated as follows:
(a) If $x\in R, y\in R$, and $x>0$, then there is a positive integer $n$ such that $$nx>y.$$ (b) If $x\in R, y\in R$, and $x<y$, then there exists a $p\in Q$ such that $x<p<y$.
I understand Rudin's proof of (a). The beginning of Rudin's proof of (b) is given below:
Since $x<y$, we have $y-x>0$, and (a) furnishes a positive integer $n$ such that $$n(y-x)>1.$$ Apply (a) again, to obtain positive integers $m_1$ and $m_2$ such that $m_1>nx$, $m_2>-nx$. Then $$-m_2<nx<m_1.$$ Hence there is an integer $m$ (with $-m_2\leq m\leq m_1$) such that $$m-1\leq nx<m.$$
I don't understand the justification for this last sentence beginning "Hence...." How is $m$ found, and why are $m_1$ and $m_2$ needed to find $m$?