Assumption:
A people contacts with $k$ neighbours. $m$ of these neighbours have infected with disease A and $n$ of them have infected with disease B. The rest which keeps healthy is $k-m-n$.
People infect disease A from neighbours with disease A in probability $\lambda_A$.
People infect disease B from neighbours with disease B in probability $\lambda_B$.
I:
A people can have disease A and disease B at the same time(e.g. flu$_A$, Pulmonary tuberculosis$_B$). So, there are four cases:
Not infected with disease A and disease B. ($\overline{A}\overline{B}$): $(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$
Infected with disease A and disease B. ($AB$): $(1-(1-\lambda_A)^m) (1-(1-\lambda_B)^n)=1-(1-\lambda_A)^m-(1-\lambda_B)^n+(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$
Infected with disease A but not infected with disease B. ($A\overline{B}$): $(1-(1-\lambda_A)^m) (1-\lambda_B)^n=(1-\lambda_B)^n-(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$
Infected with disease B but not infected with disease A. ($\overline{A}B$): $(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-(1-\lambda_B)^n)=(1-\lambda_A)^m-(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$
So, $P(\overline{A}\overline{B})+P(AB)+P(A\overline{B})+P(\overline{A}B)=1$.
$P(A)+P(B)-P(AB)+P(\text{Not Infected})=P(AB)+P(A\overline{B})+P(AB)+P(\overline{A}B)-p(AB)+P(\overline{A}\overline{B})=1$.
Are these probabilities right in these cases?
II:
A people can only one of two diseases at the same time (like flu$_A$, flu$_B$). So:
Not infected with disease A and disease B. ($\overline{A}\overline{B}$): $(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$ Right??
Infected with disease A. ($P(A|\overline{B})=\frac{P(A,\overline{B})}{P(\overline{B})}$ or just $P(A)$) ?? And what is the detail?
Infected with disease B. ($P(B|\overline{A})=\frac{P(\overline{A},B)}{P(B)}$ or just $P(B)$) ?? And what is the detail?
EDIT: $P(A)+P(B)+P(\text{Not Infected}) = 1$?
Do I need to supply more information about my problem? Please comment below. Thanks for your time.

the probability infected A disease from neighbourswhat is that. Is it $P(A\overline{B})$ or $P(A) = P(A|\overline{B})+P(A|B)=P(A|\overline{B})$, with $P(A|B)=0$? How can we modelling the influence of neighbour's who have disease B when we saythe probability infected A disease from neighbours? Please do not mislead by the stuff I wrote, things like $(1-\lambda_A)$ – Nick Dong Dec 25 '17 at 08:47