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Assumption:

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A people contacts with $k$ neighbours. $m$ of these neighbours have infected with disease A and $n$ of them have infected with disease B. The rest which keeps healthy is $k-m-n$.

People infect disease A from neighbours with disease A in probability $\lambda_A$.

People infect disease B from neighbours with disease B in probability $\lambda_B$.

I:

A people can have disease A and disease B at the same time(e.g. flu$_A$, Pulmonary tuberculosis$_B$). So, there are four cases:

Not infected with disease A and disease B. ($\overline{A}\overline{B}$): $(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$

Infected with disease A and disease B. ($AB$): $(1-(1-\lambda_A)^m) (1-(1-\lambda_B)^n)=1-(1-\lambda_A)^m-(1-\lambda_B)^n+(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$

Infected with disease A but not infected with disease B. ($A\overline{B}$): $(1-(1-\lambda_A)^m) (1-\lambda_B)^n=(1-\lambda_B)^n-(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$

Infected with disease B but not infected with disease A. ($\overline{A}B$): $(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-(1-\lambda_B)^n)=(1-\lambda_A)^m-(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$

So, $P(\overline{A}\overline{B})+P(AB)+P(A\overline{B})+P(\overline{A}B)=1$.

$P(A)+P(B)-P(AB)+P(\text{Not Infected})=P(AB)+P(A\overline{B})+P(AB)+P(\overline{A}B)-p(AB)+P(\overline{A}\overline{B})=1$.

Are these probabilities right in these cases?

II:

A people can only one of two diseases at the same time (like flu$_A$, flu$_B$). So:

Not infected with disease A and disease B. ($\overline{A}\overline{B}$): $(1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$ Right??

Infected with disease A. ($P(A|\overline{B})=\frac{P(A,\overline{B})}{P(\overline{B})}$ or just $P(A)$) ?? And what is the detail?

Infected with disease B. ($P(B|\overline{A})=\frac{P(\overline{A},B)}{P(B)}$ or just $P(B)$) ?? And what is the detail?

EDIT: $P(A)+P(B)+P(\text{Not Infected}) = 1$?

Do I need to supply more information about my problem? Please comment below. Thanks for your time.

3 Answers3

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Your part I is correct. (For being infected with both disease $A$ and $B$ I prefer the notation $P(A\cap B)$ or $P(A,B)$ to $P(AB)$, however I will use your notation).

For part II:

The probability of being infected with disease $A$ has notation $P(A)$; $P(A|\overline{B})$ means the probability of being infected with disease $A$ given that you are not infected with disease $B$.

Just like the previous part, the probability of not being infected by disease $A$ is $P(\overline{A})=(1-\lambda_A)^m$. Therefore the complementary event has probability $P(A)=1-(1-\lambda_A)^m$. With the same arguments we see that $P(\overline{B})=(1-\lambda_B)^n$ and $P(B)=1-(1-\lambda_B)^n$. Your EDIT is correct, as you can only be infected by either disease $A$, $B$ or none.

Using that fact, we obtain $P(\overline{AB})=1-P(A)-P(B)=(1-\lambda_A)^m-(1-\lambda_B)^n-1$.

The same could be concluded from the total law of probability: $P(\overline{A})=P(\overline{A}B)+P(\overline{AB})=P(\overline{A}|B)P(B)+P(\overline{AB})=P(B)+P(\overline{AB})$, so $P(\overline{AB})=P(\overline{A})-P(B)=(1-\lambda_A)^m-(1-\lambda_B)^n-1$, because if you are infected by disease $B$, then automatically you cannot be infected by $A$, so $P(\overline{A}|B)=1$.

Remarks:

$P(\overline{AB})\neq (1-\lambda_A)^m (1-\lambda_B)^n$. You cannot reason towards that conclusion, because you can't reason them to be indepedent (for $\lambda_A,\lambda_B>0)$.

You could also try to find all of the conditional probabilities. For example, $P(A|B)=P(B|A)=0$, because given being infected with disease $A$, you cannot be infected with disease $B$. For the other ones, use $P(\overline{A}|\overline{B})=\frac{P(\overline{AB})}{P(\overline{B})}$ and $P(A|\overline{B})=\frac{P(A\overline{B})}{P(\overline{B})}=\frac{P(\overline{B}|A)P(A)}{P(\overline{B})}=\frac{P(A)}{P(\overline{B})}$.

  • So, I and II all get the same result: Infected with disease A. $P(A)=1-(1-\lambda_A)^m$, Infected with disease B. $P(B)=1-(1-\lambda_B)^n$? – Nick Dong Dec 24 '17 at 15:38
  • @Nick_Dong Only $P(A)$ and $P(B)$ are the same in both parts. The other probabilities relating to both $A$ and $B$ are different due to being mutually exclusive. – The Phenotype Dec 24 '17 at 21:10
  • Infected with A is not independent with infected with B in II. Vertex $i$'s infectious status is influenced by all infected neighbours including those have A disease and B disease. So, I was confused about that when we say the probability infected A disease from neighbours what is that. Is it $P(A\overline{B})$ or $P(A) = P(A|\overline{B})+P(A|B)=P(A|\overline{B})$, with $P(A|B)=0$? How can we modelling the influence of neighbour's who have disease B when we say the probability infected A disease from neighbours? Please do not mislead by the stuff I wrote, things like $(1-\lambda_A)$ – Nick Dong Dec 25 '17 at 08:47
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Too long for a comment.

II

I think this is a hard question.

“- What is a probability to meet a crocodile at your street?”
“- One over two. I either meet him, or do not meet.”

As it sometimes happens for probability problems, I think that the problem formulation is incomplete. In particular, it is not clear how to choose whether the person will be infected with decease $A$ or decease $B$ if both cases are possible. The problem formulation can be completed by providing an explicit and exact model. But this approach raises an other problem, because
different models may lead to different values of probability. A famous example is “the Bertrand paradox, [which] is a problem within the classical interpretation of probability theory. Joseph Bertrand introduced it in his work ‘Calcul des probabilités’ (1889) as an example to show that probabilities may not be well defined if the mechanism or method that produces the random variable is not clearly defined”.

I think the following model is natural. A person consecutively visits all its sick neighbors. For instance, because he is Santa delivering Christmas gifts and all his neighbors were good during the last year. (Don’t be upset because of Santa. Even if he’ll be infected, he’ll recover soon. He is strong. HO HO HO!)

In order to be infected by a decease it is relevant only an order $\sigma$ in which Santa visits his sick neighbors. Since he loves each of them equally, Santa chooses as $\sigma$ a permutation of a symmetric group $S_{m+n}$ with an equal probability $ 1/|S_{m+n}|=1/(m+n)!$ for each permutation $\sigma$.

The probability $1-P(A)-P(B)$ not to be infected after all visits does not depend on $\sigma$ and equals $(1-\lambda_A)^m(1-\lambda_B)^n$. But for a given permutation $\sigma=(\sigma_i)\in S_{m+n}$ of neighbors the probability that $r$-th neighbor was (the first) who infected Santa is $\lambda_{\sigma,r}\prod_{i=1}^{r-1} (1-\lambda_{\sigma,i})$, where $\lambda_{\sigma,j}=\lambda_A$, if $\sigma_i$-th neighbor is infected by decease $A$ and $\lambda_{\sigma,j}=\lambda_B$, if $\sigma_i$-th neighbor is infected by decease $B$. Thus the probability that Santa will be infected by disease $A$ is $$P(\sigma,A)=\sum_{\sigma_r=A} \lambda_{\sigma,r} \prod_{i=1}^{r-1} (1-\lambda_{\sigma,i}).$$ The total probability $P(A)$ for Santa to be infected with desease $A$ is

$$\frac 1{(m+n)!}\sum_{\sigma \in S_{m+n} } P(\sigma,A)=\frac 1{(m+n)!}\sum_{\sigma \in S_{m+n}} \sum_{\sigma_r=A} \lambda_A \prod_{i=1}^{r-1} (1-\lambda_{\sigma,i})$$

The latter sum should be equal to something like

$$\frac 1{(m+n)!} \sum_{r=1}^{m+n} \lambda_A \sum_{j=0}^{r-1} (1-\lambda_A)^j(1-\lambda_B)^{r-1-j} m{r-1\choose j}{m-1\choose j}j!\times$$ $${n\choose r-1-j}(r-1-j)!(m+n-r)!$$

which looks hard to calculate even when $\lambda_A=\lambda_B$.

Another approach to calculate $P(A)=P(m,n,A)$ is to use a recurrent formula for each $m,n\ge 1$

$$P(m,n,A)=\frac{1}{m+n}(m(\lambda_A+(1-\lambda_A) P(m-1,n,A))+n(1-\lambda_B)P(m,n-1,A)) )$$

with boundary conditions $P(m,0,A)=1-(1-\lambda_A)^m$ and $P(0,n,A)=0$.

By the way, the formula is similar to the recurrent formula for $E(m,n)$ from my question on extrasensory perception strategy, leading to very non-trivial estimations even when $m=n$ and the probabities are equal to $1/2$.

I can provide a few results for our case. Namely, when $n=m$ and $\lambda_A=\lambda_B=\lambda$ then by symmetry $P(A)=P(B)=\frac 12(1-(1-\lambda)^{m+n})$. Also for a particular case $\lambda_A=\lambda_B=1/2$ and $m=1$ by an easy induction we can show that $P(1,n,A)=\frac 1{n+1}\left(1-\frac 1{2^{n+1}}\right)$ for each $n\ge 0$. But already for $P(2,n,A)$ I expect a more complicated formula.

Alex Ravsky
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    This is a profound answer. And it is really helpful. A specific assumption is necessary for modelling works. That is why I ask Do I need to supply more information about my problem? in my question description. So, could you supply the solution of the case that it do not consider infected orders? – Nick Dong Dec 25 '17 at 04:40
  • @NickDong We may say that a case when a people is infected by two deseases is impossible, reducing by this our probabilites $P(\cdot)$ to conditional $P(\cdot|\overline{AB})$ . – Alex Ravsky Dec 25 '17 at 06:09
  • Then (if $P(AB)\ne 1$) from Case I we obtain $$P(A|\overline{AB})=\frac{P(A)-P(AB)}{1-P(AB)}=\frac{(1-(1-\lambda_A)^m)(1-\lambda_B)^n}{(1-\lambda_A)^m+(1-\lambda_B)^n-(1-\lambda_A)^m(1-\lambda_B)^n},$$ $$P(B|\overline{AB})=\frac{P(B)-P(AB)}{1-P(AB)}=\frac{ (1-\lambda_A)^m(1-(1-\lambda_B)^n)}{(1-\lambda_A)^m+(1-\lambda_B)^n-(1-\lambda_A)^m(1-\lambda_B)^n},$$ and $$P(\mbox{Not Infected}|\overline{AB})=\frac{P(\mbox{Not Infected})}{1-P(AB)}=$$ $$\frac{(1-\lambda_A)^m(1-\lambda_B)^n}{(1-\lambda_A)^m+(1-\lambda_B)^n-(1-\lambda_A)^m(1-\lambda_B)^n}.$$ – Alex Ravsky Dec 25 '17 at 06:09
  • So, in case II, what is the probability infected A disease from neighbours is, since vertex ii's infectious status is influenced by all infected neighbours including those have A disease and B disease? How can we model the influence of neighbour's who have disease B when we say the probability infected A disease from neighbours without considering infected time order? We do not consider the contact detail. Neighbour transfer disease virus to $i$ at the same time. Some of them arrive at $i$, some of not, influence by $\lambda$. If one disease, easy. None $(1-\lambda)^{neibour}$ – Nick Dong Dec 25 '17 at 09:08
  • If one disease, easy. None of disease virus transfer to $i$: $(1-\lambda)^{numofneibour}$. One of disease virus transfer to $i$: $1-(1-\lambda)^{numofneibour}$ then $i$ have disease. If two disease, all neighbours spread disease virus to $i$ either. One of disease virus arrives at $i$, $i$ have disease. But the probability of have A should not independent with have B, right? – Nick Dong Dec 25 '17 at 09:14
  • @NickDong Right, a modeling of an infected network (which I had to guess from the picture :-) ) is a different problem. So, what can be natural assumptions on decease spread (up to naturalness of the initial assumption that a person can be infected by only one disease; I wish to live in such a world :-) ). One of the assumptions is that the viruses received from the neighbors fights for person’s body and the strongest wins. Then we have to introduce to a model a relative virus strength $r_{AB}$ . – Alex Ravsky Dec 25 '17 at 11:33
  • For instance, if it turns out that a person have to be infected both by decease $A$ and a decease $B$ then the unlucky one is infected by decease $A$ with probability $r_{AB}$ and by decease $B$, otherwise. I guess that in reality we have to consider the viruses received in total from the neighbors, but this is out of the proposed model. – Alex Ravsky Dec 25 '17 at 11:33
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    So we may assume that virus strength is already represented by $\lambda$’s and numbers of neighbors, which advocates the formulas which I proposed above. Note that, rigorously saying, in this approach $\lambda_A$ and $\lambda_B$ are not infection transfer probabilities anymore, but more abstract disease spread strengths. – Alex Ravsky Dec 25 '17 at 11:34
  • The "above" is the result of case I, which is under the assumption of simultaneously infected two diseases. – Nick Dong Dec 29 '17 at 04:06
  • case II: The infected neighbours independently transferred the disease to $i$. The vertex $i$ receive diseases from neighbours. One or some of the neighbours transferred disease successfully at one step simultaneously. There are two diseases: A, B. Vertex $i$ can be healthy or have one of the diseases at the same time. If one of them transferred successfully, the $i$ become infected. Vertex chooses one of successful processes uniformly. – Nick Dong Dec 29 '17 at 04:44
  • So, case II, none of them received by $i$: $(1-\lambda_A)(1-\lambda_A)(1-\lambda_A)...(1-\lambda_A)(1-\lambda_B)(1-\lambda_B)(1-\lambda_B)...(1-\lambda_B)=(1-\lambda_A)^m(1-\lambda_B)^n$. And at least one of them transferred successfully to $i$:$1-(1-\lambda_A)^m(1-\lambda_B)^n$. But What is the probability of infected by disease A? Seems I need start a new question. – Nick Dong Dec 29 '17 at 04:45
  • @NickDong The problem is that this case II axiom system leads to a contradiction, so in order to have a model it must be fixed, which I tried to do. – Alex Ravsky Dec 29 '17 at 09:58
  • It's like an open question now? I don't think it leads to a contradiction with fixed steps case II axiom system. (1) The infected neighbours independently transferred the disease to $i$. (2) One or some of the neighbours transferred disease successfully at one step simultaneously. (3) Vertex chooses one of the successful processes uniformly. – Nick Dong Dec 29 '17 at 13:03
  • I found a similar model here which is a Markov model with this assumption. I think there should be a Non-Markov way to model this assumption. – Nick Dong Dec 29 '17 at 13:06
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Your answers to the first part are spot on.

In the second part, as a person can be infected with only one disease at a time, that means, the probability she is infected with disease A = $1$- probability of not getting infected with disease A = $1-(1-\lambda_A)^m$.

Similar is the case for the second disease.

  • Thank you for reply fast. FYI, A: $1-(1-\lambda_A)^m$, B: $1-(1-\lambda_B)^n$. But $P(A)+P(B)+P(\overline{A}\overline{B})=1-(1-\lambda_A)^m + 1-(1-\lambda_B)^n +(1-\lambda_A)^m(1-\lambda_B)^n\neq 1$. And When should use conditional probability? Can you give more detail about this in your answer? Thanks. – Nick Dong Dec 19 '17 at 14:26