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For example, why does the Hausdorff measure of a flat disc go to zero when the power that the diameter is raised to (in the definition of the Hausdorff measure) reaches 3?

  • Are you asking why the 3-dimensional Hausdorff measure of a 2-dimensional disk is zero? – Xander Henderson Dec 30 '17 at 23:41
  • Yes, but to be sure we’re saying the same thing, I’m asking why the Hausdorff measure (of a flat disk) becomes zero when the diameter is raised to the power of 3. Thank you. – Paul Bratch Dec 31 '17 at 09:59
  • Xander, I’d add that my confusion is related to knowing that a flat disc has an infinite HM when s=1, then a finite number equal to the area of the disc when s=2, but when s=3 even though I’m aware the diameter of a 3 dimensional volume of zero height is zero, I’m not able to understand why the HM is also zero when s=3. Thanks for any help you can provide. Paul. – Paul Bratch Dec 31 '17 at 12:48
  • Xander, perhaps another way of asking my question is to help me understand exactly what the cover of the flat disc actually is, hence why it tends to infinity when the sum of the diameters of the cover is raised to the power 1, to a finite number when the sum of the diameters of the cover is raised to the power 2, then to zero when the sum of the diameters of the cover is raised to the power 3 (or more than 3). Thanks, Paul. – Paul Bratch Dec 31 '17 at 16:52
  • I've added an answer. Note that the $s$-dimensional Hausdorff measure of a disk is 0 for any $s > 2$, including nonintegers, such as $2.1$. – Xander Henderson Dec 31 '17 at 17:27

2 Answers2

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Definition: Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space, let $E\subseteq X$, fix $s,\delta > 0$, and let $$ \mathscr{H}^s_{\delta}(E) = \inf\left\{ \sum_{j} r_j^s : E \subseteq \bigcup_{j} A_j, \operatorname{diam}(A_j) = r_j \le \delta \right\}. $$ Then the $s$-dimensional Hausdorff measure of $E$ is defined to be $$ \mathscr{H}^s(E) = \inf_{\delta > 0} \mathscr{H}^s_{\delta}(E) = \lim_{\delta \to 0^+} \mathscr{H}^{s}_{\delta}(X). $$

Technically, $\mathscr{H}^s$ defines an outer measure on $X$, but the restriction of this outer measure to the measurable sets (in the sense of Carathéodory) is a Borel regular outer measure, so let's just assume that we live in a universe where the Hausdorff measure has been restricted to the Hausdorff measurable sets, which includes all of the Borel sets.

Now, the Hausdorff measure just defined has a really interesting property: the $s$-dimensional measure of a set is infinite for small values of $s$, and zero for large values of $s$. Indeed, if we define $$ \dim_{\mathrm{H}}(E) = \sup \{ s : \mathscr{H}^s(E) = \infty \}, $$ then we have $$ \mathscr{H}^s(E) = \begin{cases} \infty & \text{if $s < \dim_{\mathrm{H}}(E)$, and} \\ 0& \text{if $s > \dim_{\mathrm{H}}(E)$.} \\ \end{cases} $$ That is, the $s$-dimensional Hausdorff measure is either infinite or zero almost all of the time, and can only be finite and nonzero for a very special value of $s$, which we call the Hausdorff dimension. In the case proposed by the question, a disk is two-dimensional, which implies that if $s < 2$ then the $s$-dimensional measure of the of the disk is infinite, and if $s > 2$ then the measure is zero. Note that $s$ need not be an integer.

So, why does the Hausdorff measure have this property? It basically comes down to the following proposition:

Proposition: The following hold:

  1. If $\mathscr{H}^s(E) < \infty$ and $t > s$, then $\mathscr{H}^t(E) = 0$, and
  2. if $\mathscr{H}^s(E) > 0$ and $t < s$, then $\mathscr{H}^t(E) = \infty$.

Proof: We show only the first (which, to be fair, completely answers the original question), and leave the second as an exercise—the proof is nearly identical.

Observe that if $\operatorname{diam}(A) = r < \delta$, then $$ \operatorname{diam}(A)^t = r^t = r^{t-s}r^s < \delta^{t-s} r^s. $$ From this, it follows that \begin{align} \mathscr{H}^t_{\delta}(E) &= \inf\left\{ \sum_{j} r_j^t : E \subseteq \bigcup_j A_j, \operatorname{diam}(A_j) = r_j < \delta \right\} \\ &\le \inf\left\{ \delta^{t-s} \sum_{j} r_j^s : E \subseteq \bigcup_j A_j, \operatorname{diam}(A_j) = r_j < \delta \right\} \\ &= \delta^{t-s} \inf\left\{ \sum_{j} r_j^s : E \subseteq \bigcup_j A_j, \operatorname{diam}(A_j) = r_j < \delta \right\} \\ &= \delta^{t-s} \mathscr{H}^s_{\delta}(E). \end{align} But we have assumed that $\mathscr{H}^s(E) < \infty$ and we have $t-s > 0$, so, taking limits on both sides, we have $$ \mathscr{H}^t(E) = \lim_{\delta \to 0} \mathscr{H}^t_{\delta}(E) \le \lim_{\delta \to 0} r^{t-s} \mathscr{H}^s_{\delta}(E) = \left(\lim_{\delta\to 0} r^{t-s}\right) \mathscr{H}^s(E) = 0.\tag*{$\blacksquare$}$$

Basically, the point of this proof is that if the $s$-dimensional Hausdorff measure of a set is known to be finite, then the $t$-dimensional Hausdorff measure of that set must be zero for all $t$ that are larger than $s$, because we can factor out a $\delta^{t-s}$ when we look at the sums-of-diameters of a $\delta$-covering. If you are looking for an intuition about what is happening, this is likely about as good as it gets—just pay attention to where that $\delta^{t-s}$ is coming from, and what it means about the Hausdorff measure in dimension $t$.


With a bit of extra work, we get the following interesting facts:

  1. By definition, $\dim_{\mathrm{H}}(E) = \sup\{ s : \mathrm{H}^s(E) = \infty \}$. From this and the above proposition, it follows that $$ \mathscr{H}^{t}(E) = 0 \qquad\forall t > \dim_{\mathrm{H}}(E) $$ (apply the proposition with $s = \frac{1}{2}(\dim_{\mathrm{H}}(E) + t)$; observe that $\mathscr{H}^s(E) < \infty$).
  2. Therefore we could equivalently define $$ \dim_{\mathrm{H}}(E) = \inf\{ s : \mathscr{H}^s(E) = 0 \}, $$ which justifies the dichotomy stated above.
  3. If it is known that $0 < \mathscr{H}^s(E) < \infty$, then we immediately know that the Hausdorff dimension of $E$ is $s$. Since it is not too difficult to show that the Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb{R}^n$ and the $n$-dimensional Hausdorff measure on $\mathbb{R}^n$ agree (up to a constant), it follows that any set of finite, nonzero Lebesgue measure in $\mathbb{R}^n$ must be of Hausdorff dimension $n$. In particular, a disk in $\mathbb{R}^2$ is $2$-dimensional. This means that the $(2+\varepsilon)$-dimensional Hausdorff measure of such a disk must be zero for all $\varepsilon > 0$, and the $(2-\varepsilon)$-dimensional Hausdorff measure of such a disk must be infinite for all $\varepsilon \in [0,2)$.
  • Very helpful, thank you Xander, think I’ve got it now. Just to check that I’ve really understood then I’d paraphrase what you’ve set out in the case of the flat disc in R3, as being to firstly recognize intuitively that the 2 dimensional area is a finite number, hence from your proposition that when the diameter is raised to the power 3 the HM is zero, while when it is raised to the power 1 the HM is infinite. Is that correct? – Paul Bratch Jan 01 '18 at 23:24
  • I wouldn't say that one "intuitively" recognizes that the area of a disk is finite---one recalls (or shows) that 2-dimensional Hausdorff measure and Lebesgue measure in the plane differ by a multiplicative constant, then observes that the Lebesgue measure of a disk is known to be finite (but not zero). From this we get that the Hausdorff measure of the disk is zero and infinite in dimensions 3 and 1, respectively. – Xander Henderson Jan 01 '18 at 23:48
  • Got it, thanks again – Paul Bratch Jan 02 '18 at 05:25
  • Could you please explain the second line of the Proposition when the assumption is infinity, since I got a limit of infinity over 0 in the end. – Flashhh Jun 04 '21 at 17:30
  • @Flashhh I'm not sure that I understand the question, but a limit of the form "$\infty/0$" is infinite, is it not? – Xander Henderson Jun 04 '21 at 17:38
  • @XanderHenderson I just know the convention "$\infty \cdot 0 = 0$", if "$\infty / 0 = \infty$", then my problem is solved. Thanks. – Flashhh Jun 04 '21 at 18:05
  • @Flashhh The expression $\infty/0$ is nonsense (as is the expression $\infty\cdot 0$), but if $f,g > 0$, $f(x) \to \infty$, and $g(x) \to 0$, then $f(x)/g(x) \to \infty$ (note that $1/g(x) \to \infty$, so the limit is "of the form" $\infty/0 = \infty\cdot (1/\infty) = \infty\cdot \infty$---this is not an indeterminate form). – Xander Henderson Jun 04 '21 at 18:09
  • Suppose $\mathscr{H}^s(E)=\infty$ for some $s\gt0$. Can we say for certain that there is a $t\gt0$ with $\mathscr{H}^t(E)\lt\infty$? The assumption $\mathscr{H}^t(E)\lt\infty$ in your propositional proofs is very important. Really I am asking: does every measurable set have a well-defined dimension? Likewise if $\mathscr{H}^s(E)=0$ for some $s\gt0$ - is it guaranteed that the infimum/supremum in $\dim_HE$ exists? – FShrike Feb 27 '22 at 21:01
  • @FShrike There exist infinite dimensional spaces, i.e. spaces such that $\mathscr{H}^s(E) = \infty$ for all $s \ge 0$. However, the infimum and supremum always exist (as extended real numbers). – Xander Henderson Feb 27 '22 at 22:25
  • @XanderHenderson Thank you. I'm curious about something else; since the contribution of a set in a cover to the Hausdorff premeasure is determined purely by the diameter, in order to take the infimum we surely realise that the Hausdorff premeasure is minimised by choosing the cover so that the number of sets required, for a given diameter, is minimised; the shapes that do this, that maximise coverage of the set for a given diameter, are the balls. Thus, although we have inequality, I'm not understanding why it isn't the case that we can replace the $A_j$ with balls – FShrike Feb 27 '22 at 22:45
  • In principle, you could replace arbitrary sets with balls. However, balls are not necessarily the most efficient cover. Consider, for example, a two point set ${a,b}$ with metric defined by $d(a,b) = 1$. You cannot cover this space by a ball of diameter $1$ (indeed, the smallest ball which covers the space has diameter $2$), but the space can be covered by a single set of diameter $1$ (the space itself). In the limit, these kinds of cases don't generally matter, and you can replace arbitrary sets with balls centered in the space, but such a restriction is not part of the definition. – Xander Henderson Feb 28 '22 at 11:56
  • You have a quite important typo in your definition of the Hausdorff measure. In particular, it should be that $\mathscr{H}^s(E)=\sup_{\delta>0}\mathscr{H}^s_\delta(E)$ (i.e. a supremum and not infimum). The limit part is correct at least – Lorago Jan 28 '23 at 21:38
  • Wait no there should be $E$ and not $X$ in the limit part – Lorago Jan 28 '23 at 21:44
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A flat disc $D$ of radius $1$ has area $\pi.$ For $n\in \Bbb N$ let $S_n$ be a set of open discs, each of diameter $1/n$ or less, with $\cup S_n \supset D$ and $$\sum_{t\in S_n}A(t)<2\pi,$$ where $A(t)$ is the area of $t.$

For $t\in S_n$ let $d(t)$ be the diameter of $t.$ Then $A(t)=\pi d(t)^2/4.$

Let $r>0.$ Then $$\sum_{t\in S_n} \pi d(t)^{2+r}/4=\sum_{t\in S_n}A(t)d(t)^r\leq \sum_{t\in S_n}A(t)(1/n)^r<2\pi(1/n)^r.$$ As $n\to \infty$ we have $2\pi (1/n)^r\to 0.$

  • Daniel, I’m not sure how your description answers my question, as it seems to be answering a different question about how the area of the discs covering D tend to zero, whereas I’m trying to understand why the Hausdorff measure of a flat disc becomes zero when the diameter (part of the Hausdorff measure definition) increases from 2 to 3. Thanks for any help you can give me with that question. Paul. – Paul Bratch Dec 31 '17 at 10:05