Suppose that $(X_t)$ and $(Y_t)$ are stochastic processes defined on the same probability space whose sample paths belong to some Hilbert space $K$ (or more generally, to some function space). We may view these processes as $K$-valued random variables, hence we may talk about their independence as random variables.
Is the independence of stochastic processes $(X_t)$ and $(Y_t)$ equivalent to the independence of the corresponding $K$-valued random variables?
Apologies if this is trivial, but I am lost with indices.