I would greatly appreciate assistance with the following problem. show:
$$\int _0 ^\infty J_n(x)dx = 1; \forall n \in \mathbb{N}^+$$
for $J_o,$ use $$\mathscr{L}{J_o(at)} = \int _0 ^\infty e^{-pt}J_o(at)dt = (p^2 + a^2)^{- \frac{1}{2}}$$
By setting a = 1; p = 0; I obtain that which I was trying to prove. How would I generalize this to other orders of the Bessel function? I tried writing a generalized bessel function in closed form but this proved fruitless.
If I take the Laplace transform of a bessel function, then the only way to do that would be to do it term by term?
EDIT : I'm still not sure how one would actually take the Laplace Transform of such a function?