I'm trying to prove that
$$ \int_0^{\infty}J_n(bx)dx=\dfrac{1}{b}$$
when $b > 0$ and $n$ is a nonnegative integer. From the recurrence relations I arrived at the identity
$$\int_0^{\infty}J_{n+1}(bx)dx=\int_0^{\infty}J_{n-1}(bx)dx,$$
but I do not see how to use this.