So I worked along the lines of the following:
$$ \left( \cos \left( \theta \right) + i \sin \left( \theta \right) \right)^{\alpha} = \left( e^{i \theta} \right)^{\alpha} = e^{i (\theta \alpha)} = \cos \left( \theta \alpha \right) + i \sin \left( \theta \alpha \right) $$
with $i$ the imaginary number, $\theta$ real and $\alpha$ real and $\sin , \cos$ the normal trig functions
However if we take $\alpha = \frac{1}{2}$ a fellow member saw that
$$ \left( \cos \theta + i \sin \theta \right)^{1/2} = \left\{ \begin{array}{l} \cos \left( \frac{\theta}{2} \right) + i \sin \left( \frac{\theta}{2} \right) \\ \cos \left( \frac{\theta}{2} + \pi \right) + i \sin \left( \frac{\theta}{2} + \pi \right) \end{array}\right. $$
which, from my perspective comes down to the fact that $a^2 = b$ can be solved as $a = \sqrt{b} \lor a = -\sqrt{b}$. I feel as though either I'm being very silly (as per usual) or there's something deep going on here that I'm missing