Question as follows.
Suppose that $\mathbf{F}$,$\mathbf{G}:\mathbb{R^3}\rightarrow\mathbb{R^3}$ and $\phi:\mathbb{R^3}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ are smooth. Show using the summation convention that $$\nabla\cdot\left(\mathbf{F}\times\mathbf{G}\right)=\mathbf{G}\cdot(\nabla\times\mathbf{F})-\mathbf{F}\cdot(\nabla\times\mathbf{G}).$$
So far I have $$\mathrm{LHS}=\partial_i\mathbf{e}_i\cdot\left(F_j\mathbf{e}_j\times G_k\mathbf{e}_k\right)=\partial_i\mathbf{e}_i\cdot(F_j G_k \epsilon_{jki}\mathbf{e}_i)=\partial_iF_jG_k\epsilon_{ijk}.$$
I'm under the impression that this should be $0$ as expanding the $\mathrm{RHS}$ gives $2\partial_iF_jG_k\epsilon_{ijk}$. Is this true and is it true because for $\partial_iF_jG_k\ne0$ iff $i=j$ or $i=k$ but if $i=j$ or $i=k$ then $\epsilon_{ijk}=0$?