In question 2 of this exam we see that topological space $X$ is Hausdorff if and only if the diagonal $\Delta=\{(x,x)\in X\times X\}$ is a closed. I came across this theorem in a similar assignment question and I am happy with the proof and validity of this theorem.
However, an equivalent definition of closed is that a subspace contains all its limit points. As far as I am concerned a sequence $x_i\in X$ converges exactly when $(x_i,x_i)\in X\times X$ converges and if $x_i\rightarrow x$ then surely $(x_i,x_i)\rightarrow (x,x)$ but this would imply that $\Delta$ is closed and hence every topological space would be Hausdorff. Clearly this is not the case.
My only thoughts are that perhaps some of the definitions I have used do not work for example a limit being well defined but so far my checks seem to fail to provide an adequate issue with my blatant contradiction.
What's gone wrong?