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If there's no operator between two numbers, such as

$$\frac{1}{4}\ \frac{3}{2}$$

is multiplication meant? In other words,

$$\frac{1}{4}\ \frac{3}{2}=\frac{1}{4}\cdot\frac{3}{2}=\frac{3}{8}\tag{1}$$

Is $(1)$ a true statement?

tryingtobeastoic
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    Yes, but a thoughtful person will write the product in a way that is more clearly a product. You might find it written as shown in the title in a book of dubious quality. Is that where you found it? – David K Feb 15 '22 at 03:34
  • @DavidK No I didn't find it in a book: I was doing math on paper today and I wondered if I could write $\frac{1}{4}\cdot\frac{3}{2}$ as $\frac{1}{4}\ \frac{3}{2}$. – tryingtobeastoic Feb 15 '22 at 06:13

1 Answers1

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If both are fractions then you're correct. The general convention is that there is a multiplication sign between them.

But if one is an integer (particularly the one on the left) then the given number represents a mixed fraction and the sign between them is the"plus" sign.

Nandeesh Bhatrai
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