With motivation from this post, a certain question came to my mind. Is it "easy" to prove 2 functions are the same?
While I searched on the internet for that matter, I only found out about ways to prove or disprove it for certain functions. I found here that finding the equivalence of two functions is undecidable (but for "programming" functions).
Is there anything similar for "math" functions?
The only thing that comes to my mind is, if they have the same domain, codomain and we can transform them into an "irreducible" form.
(I'm talking about functions which domain is infinite, else we can just check all the inputs).