I think I find a proof. Actually the conjecture can be strengthened: no need to assume $f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1$, only concavity/convexity of $f(0)$ is needed.The proof uses the definition of concave(convex) function. Suppose $f(x)$ is a concave function, note that
\begin{equation*}
\frac{k-1}{N}<\frac{k}{N+1}<\frac{k}{N}
\end{equation*}
and
\begin{equation*}
\frac{k}{N+1}=\frac{k}{N+1}\cdot \frac{k-1}{N}+\left( 1-\frac{k}{N+1}\right)
\cdot \frac{k}{N}
\end{equation*}
Suppose $f\left( x\right) $ is concave, then
\begin{eqnarray*}
f\left( \frac{k}{N+1}\right) &\geq &\frac{k}{N+1}f\left( \frac{k-1}{N}%
\right) +\left( 1-\frac{k}{N+1}\right) f\left( \frac{k}{N}\right) \\
S_{N+1} &=&\frac{1}{N+2}\sum_{k=0}^{N+1}f\left( \frac{k}{N+1}\right) \\
&\geq &\frac{1}{N+2}\left\{ f\left( 1\right) +f(0)+\sum_{k=1}^{N}\left[
\frac{k}{N+1}f\left( \frac{k-1}{N}\right) +\left( 1-\frac{k}{N+1}\right)
f\left( \frac{k}{N}\right) \right] \right\} \\
&=&\frac{1}{N+1}\sum_{k=0}^{N}f\left( \frac{k}{N}\right) =S_{N}
\end{eqnarray*}
If $f\left( x\right) $ is convex, then vice versa.
If anyone spots a mistake, please tell me. Thanks in advance.
I have a different conjecture about concave function. If you are interested, please see my generalized conjecture here. I appreciate any thoughts on this.