Given $T\in B(H)$ for some Hilbert space $H$, if $T^*$ is injective and has closed range, then $T$ is surjective.
My professor sketched a proof by saying that, since $T^*$ has an inverse on its range (by the open mapping theorem), then $T$ maps $T^*(H)$ onto $H$.
Can anyone explain why this implication holds?
On my separate attempt, I know that $\text{ker}(T^*)^\perp=\overline{T(H)}$, but I'm not sure where to employ the fact that $T^*(H)$ is closed.