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Determine the value of $a\in\mathbb{R}$, such that $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 1}\dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}=7$

My attempt:

\begin{align*} &\lim_{x\to 1} \dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}=7\\ &\implies\lim_{x\to 1} x^2+(3-a)x+3a=7x-7\\ &\implies\lim_{x\to 1} x^2-4x-a(x-3)=-7\\ &\implies1^2-4(1)-a(1-3)=-7\\ &\implies a=-2 \end{align*}

My question is can I multiply both sides of my first line by $x-1$, even though the equation has a $\lim_{x\to 1}$ on the left side, as opposed to a normal equation?

Rose
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  • The multiplication is valid for the implications you wrote, which show that the original equation cannot be valid unless $a=-2$. However, you have not show that it is actually valid for $a=-2$ (the opposite implication). In fact you would have obtained the conclusion $a=-2$ in this way even if you replace $7$ by any other number (try it!), so you certainly have not shown that the limit is $7$ for $a=-2$. – Marc van Leeuwen Sep 16 '14 at 11:39
  • Some of these answers seem to betray a misunderstanding of "limit". Of course $\frac{1}{x-1}$ is undefined at $x=1$. A pedant might say that $\frac{(x-1)^2}{x-1}$ is undefined at 1. But that is beside the point. $\lim_{x\to1}f(x)$ is a totally different concept from $f(1)$. So of course you can multiply through by $x-1$, provided you bear in mind that what you get may not be valid at $x=1$. Also you may have to consider separately $x\to1^+$ and $x\to1^-$, although not, I suspect, in this particular case. – almagest Sep 16 '14 at 15:29

11 Answers11

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There is a safer way to think. If you try to plug $1$ into the limit, you'll get a division by zero. So, your only hope for this limit to make sense, is if $x^2 + (3 - a)x + 3a$ is divisible by $x - 1$, so you can simplify and eliminate the division by zero. This means that $1$ must be a root of $x^2 + (3-a)x + 3a$. So: $$1 + (3-a) + 3a = 0 \implies 4 +2a = 0 \implies a = -2.$$ Fortunately, we indeed have: $$\lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x^2 + 5x - 6}{x - 1} = \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{(x+6)(x-1)}{x-1 } = \lim_{x \to 1} x + 6 = 7.$$

Ivo Terek
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No, you can't multiply both sides by $x - 1$, or at least not the way you think. In the limit as written, $x$ only exists within the limit. If you multiply both sides by something, that something is outside the limit:

$$(\text{something})\biggl(\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}\biggr)=7(\text{something})$$

and you can't use a variable that only exists within the limit, outside of the limit. (This is the same idea as scoping in computer programming, if you know anything about that.)

If you try to just go ahead and multiply by $x - 1$ anyway, you're using the same variable name $x$ for two different variables: one inside the limit, and one outside the limit. Here I'll use color to distinguish them:

$$(\color{red}x - 1)\biggl(\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}\biggr) = 7(\color{red}x - 1)\tag{1}$$

You can bring $\color{red}x - 1$ inside the limit, because $a \lim f(x) = \lim af(x)$ (given that $a$ does not depend on $x$),

$$\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{\bigl(x^2+(3-a)x+3a\bigr)(\color{red}x - 1)}{x-1} = 7\color{red}x - 7$$

but you can't cancel out $\color{red}x - 1$ with $x - 1$ because they're different variables. In general, you should just give them different names: instead of $\color{red}x$, use $y$, for example. Then you get

$$\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{\bigl(x^2+(3-a)x+3a\bigr)(y - 1)}{x-1} = 7y - 7$$

and in that case it's pretty clear why you can't cancel anything.

However, something you can do (which is a little sneaky if you think about it, but not complicated) is use the multiplicative property of limits, namely that

$$\lim_{y\to a}f(y)\lim_{z\to a}g(z) = \lim_{x\to a}f(x)g(x)\tag{2}$$

It's usually written using the same letter for the variable in each factor, but technically they are different variables so I've made that explicit. Looking back at equation (1), instead of bringing $\color{red}x - 1$ inside the limit, you can take another limit

$$\begin{align} \biggl(\lim_{\color{red}x\to 1}\color{red}x - 1\biggr)\biggl(\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}\biggr) &= \lim_{\color{red}x\to 1}7(\color{red}x - 1) \\ \lim_{\color{blue}x\to 1}(\color{blue}x - 1)\frac{\color{blue}x^2+(3-a)\color{blue}x+3a}{\color{blue}x-1} &= 0 \end{align}$$

where on the left side I've used the multiplicative property (2), and this time you can cancel out the factors of $\color{blue}x - 1$ to get

$$\lim_{\color{blue}x\to 1}\color{blue}x^2+(3-a)\color{blue}x+3a = 1+(3-a)+3a = 0$$

This is the same result as in Ivo Terek's answer, just achieved using different (more verbose) reasoning. In this explicit reasoning the step where you take the second limit in $\color{red}x$ is key.

David Z
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  • I do not understand this. See my comment under the question. – almagest Sep 16 '14 at 14:59
  • @almagest what do you not understand about it? I can't tell from your comment on the question. The comment is true, sure, but it seems to be addressing a different point than my answer. – David Z Sep 16 '14 at 17:52
  • The use of two different variables $x$ and red $x$ for a start! I haven't downvoted you. I have just commented that I personally find it confusing. – almagest Sep 16 '14 at 17:56
  • @almagest I'm afraid I still don't see what you're missing. $x$ and $\color{red}x$ are two different variables just like $x$ and $y$ are different variables; I've just used color to show how the OP is (perhaps mistakenly) labeling them using the same letter. – David Z Sep 16 '14 at 17:58
  • I find the idea that the variable $x$ somehow bifurcates a peculiar idea. It is certainly unnecessary. It may be helpful in teaching people who have not met limits before about where to be careful, but personally I find it confusing. Maybe that is because I first understood limits more than 50 years ago and am stuck in my ways :) – almagest Sep 16 '14 at 18:02
  • @almagest I wouldn't say the variable bifurcates; I'd say there are two completely different variables from the start. The OP is just denoting them using the same letter, and because of that, making the mistake of thinking they are the same variable. But you're right, this is not something that is normally necessary to think about, nor is it something that is normally explicitly taught. – David Z Sep 16 '14 at 18:17
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You can multiply by, say, $y-1$ but you can't push it inside the limit. The value $x$ with respect to the limit lives within the context of the limit, not external to it.

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Consider this(not exactly and only for one side): $$ \lim_{x\to 1} \dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}=7\\ \dfrac{(1.00001)^2+(3-a)(1.00001)+3a}{(1.00001)-1}=7\\ (1.00001)^2+(3-a)(1.00001)+3a=7((1.00001)-1)$$ Does that make sense?

RE60K
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$$\lim_{x\to 1}\dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}=7$$ $$\lim_{x\to 1}\dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}=\lim_{x\to 1}7$$ $$\lim_{x\to 1}\dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}-\lim_{x\to 1}7=0$$ $$\lim_{x\to 1}\left(\dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}-7\right)=0$$ $$\lim_{x\to 1}\dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a-7x+7}{x-1}=0$$ $$\lim_{x\to 1}\dfrac{x^2+(-4-a)x+3a+7}{x-1}=0$$

To the limit exists and be $0$ the roots of the numerator must be one with multiplicity two (one to eliminate the $x-1$ and the other to make the limit zero). Therefore:

$$-4-a=-(1+1)$$ $$3a+7=1\cdot 1$$

Both equations have a unique solution $a=-2$

rlartiga
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No, you can not multiply by $x - 1$, because it is part of the limit operation. This is similar to saying that in the equation $$\sin \frac{1}{x - 1} = 1$$ you cannot solve it by multiplying by $x - 1$: $$\sin 1 = x - 1 \implies x = 1 + \sin 1 \quad \text{(not!)}$$ However, in your situation it is additionally true that $x$ is a "dummy variable". Your equation is for $a$; $x$ does not really exist.

Ryan Reich
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  • You have written $\sin(\frac{1}{x-1}$, but you seem to have intended $\frac{\sin1}{x-1}$. But either way I do not understand this at all. – almagest Sep 16 '14 at 15:02
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Since none of the 10 answers so far really states this clearly, I'll expand my comment to an answer.

Your multiplication is valid for the implications $\implies$ that you wrote (but in the second line you should have written "$\lim_{x\to1}$" on the right as well as on the left). Indeed in general if $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=c$, and if $\lim_{x\to a}g(x)$ exists (a finite value), then it must be the case that also $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)g(x)=\lim_{x\to a}cg(x)$; you applied this for the special case $a=1$ and $g(x)=x-1$. This however only shows that the original equation cannot be valid unless $a=-2$.

However, you have not shown that the original equation is actually valid for $a=-2$ (the opposite implication). In fact you would have obtained the conclusion $a=-2$ in this way even if you replace $7$ by any other number (try it!), so you certainly have not shown that the limit is $7$ for $a=-2$.

Back to the general situation of my first paragraph, if you want to deduce in the opposite direction from $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)g(x)=\lim_{x\to a}cg(x)$ that $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=c$, then this amounts to multiplying both sides by $\frac1{g(x)}$, and this is only allowed if $\lim_{x\to a}\frac1{g(x)}$ exists. That is not the case for $a=1$ and $g(x)=x-1$.

Just for clarity, here is a derivation that regardless of the RHS, one must have $a=-2$ for the initial statement to be true. However, this condition is only necessary, not always sufficient. $$ \begin{align*} &\lim_{x\to 1} \dfrac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}=c\\ \implies&\lim_{x\to 1} x^2+(3-a)x+3a=\lim_{x\to 1}c(x-1)\\ \iff&1^2+(3-a)\times1+3a=0c \quad\text{(both sides are continuous at $x=1$)}\\ \iff&4+2a=0\\ \iff& a=-2 \end{align*} $$ In fact one computes for $a=-2$ that $$ \lim_{x\to 1} \frac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}=\lim_{x\to 1}x^2+5x+6=\lim_{x\to 1}(x+6)=7,$$ so the condition is sufficient only for $c=7$.

  • +1 Another way of looking at it, although I am not entirely clear if you think the limit for $a=-2$ is $7$. – almagest Sep 16 '14 at 15:26
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yes you can multiply it but you don't let to enter that into limit and simply limit.

Panda
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You could also solve this in the following way: since the denominator goes to zero for $x\rightarrow1$, in order for this limit to have a finite value, also the numerator should go to zero (otherwise you would get some value divided by something that goes to zero, so that the limit is $\pm\infty$).

Now you can apply l'Hôpital's rule. Taking derivatives gives: $$\frac{2x+(3-a)}{1}=7 \quad\Longrightarrow\quad a=-2.$$

Of course you should now check that this is indeed a root of the original numerator. If it's not, then there's no solution. In this case it's alright.

SPK.z
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'$\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 1}$' is a function on expressions with the variable $x$ and generally it is not true that $a\cdot f(t)=f(a\cdot t)$. It has to be proved for each function $f$.

Lehs
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  • Sorry, I do not understand what you mean here. – almagest Sep 16 '14 at 15:03
  • $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 1}$ is a (partial) function, from all functions of $x$ to the image of $f$, that not necessarily is linear. Just a reflection! – Lehs Sep 16 '14 at 16:03
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You certainly can multiply a limit by a polynomial. Formally, polynomials are continuous, so $$lim_{x \rightarrow k}f(x) = A$$, then (a fixed-up version of) $f$ is continuous in a neighbourhood of $k$, which can be multiplied by a continuous function, so $$lim_{x \rightarrow k}f(x)P(x) = A P(k)$$ for every polynomial $P$.

However, you can't always divide by a polynomial - so you may be introducing spurious solutions - for example, your attempt would also work for $A=6$:

$$lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \frac{x^2 + (3-a)x +3a}{x-1} = 6$$ $$lim_{x \rightarrow 1} x^2 + (3-a)x +3a = 6(x-1)|_{x=1}$$ $$1^2 + (3-a)1 + 3a = 0$$ $$a = -2$$

but certainly $$lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \frac{x^2 + (3-(-2))x +3(-2)}{x-1} \ne 6$$

This is similar to what happens when you multiply out an rational equation ("algebraic fraction") or square both sides of an equation - you just have to check the solutions you found.